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A 72-year-old man, with known atrial fibrillation on anticoagulation, presents to the general practitioner with a 1-week history of a new tender, right swollen leg. The popliteal pulse was not palpable due to oedema. Distal pulses were present with no neurological deficit. The patient was referred to the accident and emergency department for deep vein thrombosis exclusion.
Other more common differentials to consider were: ruptured Baker's cyst, chronic venous leg insufficiency, infection, trauma, lymphoedema and malignancy.1
The ultrasound …